1 John 2:7-8

    A brother and I are studying 1 John together. Today we looked at the first half of chapter 2. He asked me about an apparent contradiction in verses 7 & 8. The NKJV text reads as follows: "Brethren, I write no new commandment to you, but an old commandment which you have had from the beginning. The old commandment is the word which you heard from the beginning. (8) Again, a new commandment I write to you, which thing is true in Him and in you, because the darkness is passing away, and the true light is already shining." So how can the author say in verse 7 that he writes no new commandment, and in verse 8 say that he does? The following represents a possible answer. When John speaks of a new commandment I am drawn to his gospel, which chapter 13, verse 34 reads, "A new commandment I give to you that you love one another; as I have loved you, that you also love one another." If the new commandment is to love one another, then what might the old commandment be "which you have had from the beginning?" Leviticus 19:18 comes to mind, the last part of which reads "you shall love your neighbor as yourself..." Jesus draws this from the relative obscurity of the Old Testament in response to the question "What is the greatest commandment in the law?", (Matt22:36ff) He responds "You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind. This is the first and greatest commandment. And the second is like it: You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' So the new commandment is the same as the old commandment.
    It may help to remember that the NT writers are communicating to a mixed audience of Jews, who would have familiarity with the Old Testament, and Gentiles, who probably wouldn't. To Jewish believers there is no need to speak of a new commandment because they knew the old one. To Gentile believers who had been taught that they need not follow the law of Moses in order to be saved, a new commandment is necessary.